let x = y be any non-zero number
then multiplying with x throughout gives :
x^2 = xy
and subtracting y^2 gives
x^2 - y^2 = xy - y^2
factorizing both the sides , we get:
(x+y)(x-y) = y(x-y)
x + y = y
2x = y
2 = 1
where is the flaw in the arguments ????
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2 comments:
hi,
if x = y
(x+y)(x-y)=(2x * 0)
since x=y
x-y=0
(2-2=0)
which leaves 0 everywhere
hence ur answer is wrong
bye
While canceling the factor (x-y) from both sides you have made an assumption that x-y≠0 as otherwise you have a division by 0. Now this assumption is in contradiction to your earlier one where you have put x=y. This leads to alogical fallacy.
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